Originally, I wasn't originally going to saying anything else, but I don't like this statement. I mainly don't like it because its wrong, better said: inaccurate. It’s a statement that is dismissive of the impact of chattel slavery by introducing a logical fallacy."Well, they did it too" even though, while no one every in history should have been enslaved, enslaving POWs and people from opposing tribes is not the same as using a continent to fuel an economic industrial complex the world over. I don't think you were trying to equate the two, but I have to question how much "African history" you know. I'll admit, I dont know much so I'm always willing to learn.