Yes, but how can you possibly prove that the drive is 100% absent, and how often does that really happen?
I mean, I never ever wanted kids, they are biological reasons to make me strongly suspect that my lack of interest is overwhelmingly hormonal 'defect', but still, as a scientist, I would never assume it's 100 % genetically determined. I need to take in account the fact that I also grew up in an environmemt where reproducing was not considered a necessity. If I don't take that in account, my reasoning is not valid, I would just be trying to confirm my intuition, which would not be a scientifically sound process.
(I put 'defect' in brackets, because in term of evolution, we also have to take in account kin selection. Not reproducing is not necessarily a bad thing evolutionary speaking).